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- Can you show a source? My assumption was as follows:
- -idad is a Castilian ending. Loosely, it corresponds to -ity in English, and -ité in French.
- My impression has been that JS tends to use—and I'll avoid Latin-script orthography issues by writing it out in Hebrew script—יטה-
- If so, it might be appropriate, depending on the Latin orthography used, to spell as any one of -ita, -ida, -ite, the "i" with or without a diacritical mark. But there would be no final "d".
- I suppose part of the question is whether this isn't just a relatively modern coinage, and AY went straight to modern Spanish for it. But until/unless you can show us a source, I'd prefer not to assume that. StevenJ81 (discusión) • 16 Iyyar 5777 • 18:15 11 May 2017 (UTC)